"Macabre question on generals who failed their sovereign" Topic
9 Posts
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03 Jan 2019 6:09 p.m. PST by Editor in Chief Bill
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Korvessa | 03 Jan 2019 12:06 p.m. PST |
Something I read the other day got me to wondering when was the last time various countries executed one of their own generals for failure? I know Germany & Soviet Russia did during WWII. France did during the Revolutionary Wars. So far as I know, USA never has. But what of the other countries that have been great powers within the last few centuries? Great Britain, Austria, Italy, Spain, Poland, Sweden? Any one know |
Cerdic | 03 Jan 2019 12:18 p.m. PST |
The last British one I can think of was Admiral Byng? Mid 18th Century. "Pour encourager les autres" and all that… |
22ndFoot | 03 Jan 2019 12:19 p.m. PST |
Last one for Great Britain was probably Admiral Byng in 1757 "pour encourager les autres." After his failure in the Battle of Minorca, Byng was tried by court martial and aquitted of personal cowardice but convicted of "failing to do his utmost" which meant a mandatory death sentence under the Articles of War. Various political machinations meant that the recommended clemency was not granted. |
dapeters | 03 Jan 2019 12:20 p.m. PST |
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Gerard Leman | 03 Jan 2019 12:47 p.m. PST |
I agree that France did during the Revolutionary Wars. I'm not sure that I'd characterize the German and Russian generals executed during W.W.II as being due to their failures – they were executed because they posed a threat to the applicable dictator. Byng was court-martialed for loosing Minorca (through no fault of his how, IMHO), but the Articles of War at the time only provided for the death penalty and no lesser penalty, so the court found him guilty and imposed the death penalty, but unanimously urged the Lords of Admiralty to petition the king to reduce his sentence. King George II refused to do so, apparently for political reasons. So my take is that execution of generals for military failures only occurs when the head of state is not dependent on the support of the political class from which the generals derive, or alternately, when the class from which the generals derive is fractured, and the head of state wants to use a military defeat as a pretext for getting rid of political opponents. |
Mserafin | 03 Jan 2019 2:16 p.m. PST |
I'm not sure that I'd characterize the German and Russian generals executed during W.W.II as being due to their failures Pavlov, commander of Western Front in 1941, was ostensibly executed for failure. In reality it was more like he was executed as a scapegoat for Stalin's failures, but the official reason given was failure to do those things Stalin's orders forbade him from doing. |
emckinney | 03 Jan 2019 11:46 p.m. PST |
Heck, the US Army has stopped relieving generals for failure. Or incompetence, or defying orders and causing a fubar. |
Walking Sailor | 04 Jan 2019 8:46 a.m. PST |
The USA? It depends on who you believe got to Gen. Patton. |
Puster | 05 Jan 2019 9:35 a.m. PST |
Afaik Germany in WW2 did not execute Generals for failure in the field, but for political reasons. Most were executed for their real or aligned part in the assassination attempt. |
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