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"Foolish English monarchy question" Topic


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willthepiper13 May 2015 10:39 p.m. PST

Why is that Plantagenet, Edward Longshanks, known to history as Edward I?

There were at least three other Edwards in the queue ahead of him (Edward the Elder, Edward the Martyr and Edward the Confessor) – how come none of them rate a regnal number?

Winston Smith13 May 2015 11:24 p.m. PST

All reigned before William the Conqueror so not deemed legitimate kings in the careful propaganda eyes of Norman chroniclers.

Cerdic13 May 2015 11:51 p.m. PST

Good question.

William the Conqueror actually tried to legitimise his position by presenting himself as the heir to Edward the Confessor and the line of the old English kings. In a 'business as usual' kind of way. It was only Harold who was portrayed as a brief interloper.

I can only guess that, as Winston says, it was later Norman and Plantagenate political spin to start the regnal numbering system with William I.

GurKhan14 May 2015 2:13 a.m. PST

Several websites suggest – for instance link – that "The new King initially called himself Edward IV, but for reasons unknown he came to be known as Edward I". But I haven't yet seen an original source for that statement.

Personal logo 20thmaine Supporting Member of TMP14 May 2015 4:38 a.m. PST

The counter was reset by William I.

Andrew Walters14 May 2015 8:14 a.m. PST

Could this be one of those situations where one kingdom was added to another so he held two kingships? When Elizabeth I died James VI of Scotland became James I of England and Ireland. So he was VI and I at the same time. Perhaps Longshanks started out as IV of one thing, took over another thing (which had not previously had an Edward) and upgraded the moniker?

I have no support for this, just suggesting an explanation.

Mallen14 May 2015 11:54 a.m. PST

William's prior moniker was "William the Bastard." He probably preferred the rebranding.

DonaldCox14 May 2015 2:22 p.m. PST

So if a future heir wanted to use the name Cnut would he be Cnut I or Cnut II?

Martin Rapier15 May 2015 4:53 a.m. PST

According to custom and practice he would be Cnut II and the earlier one would be referred to as Cnut I.

Queen Elizabeth I was just called Queen Elizabeth until we got another one in 1952.

Winston Smith15 May 2015 5:00 a.m. PST

Where did William the Son of a Bitch fit in?

sjwalker3816 May 2015 3:19 p.m. PST

Wherever he wanted to – no-one was going to risk an argument with that SOaB

Khusrau17 May 2015 4:08 a.m. PST

She's QE1 in Scotland, we never had a QE before this one.

Personal logo 20thmaine Supporting Member of TMP19 May 2015 3:14 p.m. PST

According to custom and practice he would be Cnut II and the earlier one would be referred to as Cnut I.

I think he'd actually be Cnut (or Cnut I), as the Norman rebranding effectively reset all counters back to zero. So last Anglo-Saxon king, Edward the confessor, was King Edward III but is not counted in the modern count of kings called Edward. Otherwise Edward VIII – the one that abdicated – would have been Edward XI.

Edward I under the new counting was Edward Longshanks, one of the the Plantagenet kings.

Convoluted explanations can be found here : link

willthepiper25 May 2015 9:14 a.m. PST

thanks for all the comments and theories, everyone

Last Hussar30 May 2015 5:53 p.m. PST

Actually Khusrau, she's still II. It became a thing in the 50's because of this Elizabeth 1/2, so Churchill put in place a compromise that monarchs would take the highest reginal number from both countries, to ensure all previous monarchs were recognised. – this means the next James will be James VIII not James III

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