
"Wallenstein's Croats: uniforms or not?" Topic
6 Posts
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| huevans | 15 Oct 2009 2:23 p.m. PST |
My understanding is that 30YW soldiers were being clothed by their respective armies by 1630. But would this apply to Croats and other "raider type" troops? |
| Daniel S | 15 Oct 2009 2:36 p.m. PST |
It was the Infantry which recived issues of clothing or cloth but the cavalry were supposed to provide their own clothing. A cavalryman was not only better paid but he was also wealthier to begin with and thus he should be able to fend for himself. His diffrent status and duties also meant that his clothing took a bit longer to wear out compared to the poor infantry who marched, worked, fought and slept in the same outfits. The Croats, Hungarians and Poles all seem to have kept much of their acustomed dress habits. Of course their dress would have been affect they wear and tear as well as clothign looted from friend and foe alike. Still their dress seems to have remained distinctive picture Look at the Croats in the corner of the painting. |
timurilank  | 15 Oct 2009 2:37 p.m. PST |
Croats in the service Maria Theresa (SYW) were issued uniforms for the first time, so I would think prior to that, no. However, that would not stop a colonel outfitting a small band at his own expense. Otherwise, national dress. You might find this useful: link Cheers, Robert 18thcenturysojourn.blogspot.com |
| huevans | 15 Oct 2009 4:10 p.m. PST |
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| The Jim Jones Cocktail Hour | 15 Oct 2009 5:59 p.m. PST |
What figures were you planning on using for the Croats? I wouldn't mind some in 28mm for a later Imperialist Army, I doubt their dress changed greatly between the 1640s and 1670s. |
| huevans | 16 Oct 2009 4:36 a.m. PST |
I have got some nice TAG figures. |
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