>Re the French navy, didn't the German army
>use masses of French army equipment,
>tanks trucks etc.
Captured material before armistice or handed
over under armistice terms.
Vichy forces weren't allowed tanks on continental
France by armistice terms.
>So when the Germans needed the French ships
The French blowed them out right before their
eyes in Toulon, November 1942
>The whole of the south of France was still
>undefeated
See armistice terms and allowance for Vichy
forces strength in Southern France.
The reason behind begging for an armistice (Vichy not
yet existing in late June 1940) was precisely
to keep an independant military force on
continental France, while surrender couldn't.
>as were their colonies yet they did not fight on.
Not sure if British colonies would have carried on
with the Svatiska flag over London and 65% of the UK
territory and population (notwithstanding 90% of
industrial areas)
Yet, few French colonies did fight on, see Dakar
expedition and free french in Tchad.
>I don't think that the loss of London would have
>caused a British surrender, perhaps it is because
>there are so many cities that are legitimate seats
>of power such as Edinburgh.
IMHO, guess the problem isn't to find a city
large enough to seat statemen and have them
talk about resistance, the problem is to have
a large enough industrial and demographic potential,
notwithstanding the need of a strong enough
defensive line.
In 1941, the Russians had enough space and a
good Autumn-Winter season to do this.
On the other hand, 1918 Germans begged for an
armistice without a single inch of the territory
occupied by allies.
An armistice isn't a peace treaty, nor a cooperation
treaty, it's a suspension of arms, under acceptance
of the enemy provisional conditions.
>There was also a plan for the king and remaining >government to use Canada as a base for the Empire's >continued fight.
Not sure, being alone in the fight, that the British
would have done much harm to the Germans from Canada,
at least for 1940-1943.
From there, there would have been some sort of 'free
British' willing to keep on the fight certainly, but
without much ground effectiveness untill the later
years.
The RN, being in comparison with the French navy
as large as were 1940 French ground forces in
comparison with 1940 British ground forces, would have accounted for a fair part of this 'free British' army
thus undoubtly keeping a high degree of effectiveness
on seas.
With regards to this 'free British' option, you end up
pretty near from what free French forces have done
in 1943-1945.
20th century conflicts have shown IMHO that a highly industrialized country with a large body of water
around its borders enjoy a fair deal of strategic superiority.
See Japan as an interesting example for this.
French most populated and industrialized areas are
hardly 200-300 km from the Franco-German borders.
And its mostly flat ground all the way
A side note for French forces evacuated from
Dunkirk :
When ordered back to France, there was NO Vichy
state and the plan was to have them be available for
a predicted armistice force to be created.
The Germans had then 2.000.000 French POWs in hand.